Hey all, I recently inherited a pretty good sized middle-mile network with 3 ISPs. The whole mess revolves around a Packetfront ASR and VLAN trunking to the ISPs.
Here’s what appears to be a typical CPE configuration:
- wlan1 connected to AP
- vlan1 on wlan
- ether1 connecting to customer PC/Router
- Bridge between vlan1 and ether1
I can’t see it, but I assume that there’s a broadband router or some such attached to the ether1 interface that has the assigned IP address from the ISP.
This VLAN configuration doesn’t seem to match up with what I’ve read about configuring VLANs on MT, which described bridging the 2 interfaces, then putting the VLAN on the bridge.
Am I correct in assuming that ALL traffic passing through this unit from the customer, to the ISP, is getting tagged by the router? If not, what’s going on with this configuration?
Thanks!