Call me stupid, but I just want to ask maybe a simple question.
If I have openvpn connection to my router, and that server push some routes (remote subnets) to my mikrotik for my whole lan subnet.
So if I have 2 ISP, and I am connected now through ISP_1, and my openvpn is connected ofcourse.
For some reason, all my dhcp clients need to have that public ISP_1 address, but only one host need to have another ISP address, for example that ISP_2 public address. That’s not problem to force some PC to go through another ISP via mangle, routing etc.
Stupid question is: How than will that PC use some remote subnets pushed from openvpn interface than?
This is what I tried but no luck
/ip firewall mangle
add action=mark-routing chain=prerouting src-address=10.10.194.40 dst-address=192.168.2.3 new-routing-mark=to_vpn passthrough=yes
/ip route
add distance=1 routing-mark=to_vpn dst-address=192.168.2.3 gateway=ovpn-out1
/ip firewall mangle
add action=mark-routing chain=prerouting src-address=10.10.194.40 new-routing-mark=to_isp2 passthrough=yes
/ip route
add distance=1 routing-mark=to_isp2 gateway=ether1-gw1
/ip firewall nat
add action=masquerade chain=srcnat out-interface=ether1-gw1 src-address=10.10.194.40