Please, I would like to ask here about this doubt cuz I couldnt test it yet o a lab. If there I have the following:
Internet
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(Router A + PPPOE AC)
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(Bridges)
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Ap1–bridges–Ap2–bridges–Ap3
And there are public IPs + PPPOE users after the APs, is possible to route a single public IP? I would like to split the traffic and then split it again. Let me try to explain:
We have public IPs and PPPOE users on every Ap. There is a bridged backbone between (Router A + PPPOE AC) and every Ap. Both IP traffic and pppoe sessions flow trough the bridges plus broadcasts, ipx, etc… Apart other undesired issues this setup can bring to us, all the traffic is mixed everywhere. Now figure what if there are conntrack enabled along the backbone. Well…
If I set a tunnel for public IP traffic between the Router A to every Ap and also, a tunnel for pppoe traffic between PPPOE AC to every Ap? Then I have the host 1 address 222.222.222.1/24 on Ap1 and the host 2 address 222.222.222.2/24 on Ap2. Same network. Ap1 tunnel is 10.0.0.1 and the Ap2 tunnel is 10.1.0.1 Every Ap default route points to the tunnel respective edge on Router A. Would host 1 talk to host 2 if I say that:
On Router A:
route add 222.222.222.1/32 gateway 10.0.0.1
route add 222.222.222.2/32 gateway 10.1.0.1
Im unsure on how to do the same for the pppoe sessions. Perhaps, make every Ap becomes a mini PPPOE AC + RIP? Since all my queues/shaping are on Router A, I dislike the idea of host 1 do a full throttle surf to host 2. Im just trying to route than bridging to avoid known problems on a production infrastructure, pls.. tia