I am still a bit confused with the Mikrotik VLAN implementation, maybe some kind soul could give me a hint here: My main router is a RB1100AHx4, port eth1 is connected to my ISP delivering VoIP over VLAN 40. For whatever reason I can only get one IP address from their dhcp Server in the VLAN, so I cannot route my VoiP-Client into the VLAN. Thus, I decided to map this VLAN to eth2, where my VoIP is connected to.
I am wondering if this is the preferred solution.
I guess I could also assign the VLAN under /interface ethernet switch to eth2, then I would not need to set up a bridge, correct?
You can also make the two Ethernet interfaces member ports of a common bridge with vlan-filtering set to yes and use /interface bridge vlan and /interface bridge port configuration subtrees to set up which VLAN will be tagged at which port as follows:
With the setup above, you have to move any IP configuration from ether1 to br-wan, and also substitute ether1 by br-wan in all IP firewall rules and on all /interface list member rows used by IP firewall rules.
So as you can see, for just two ports in a bridge and just two VLANs on ether1, your method with a dedicated bridge for VLAN 40 is simpler; with more VLANs and more ports on the bridge, the other one becomes simpler.
Both ways are implemented completely in software, so there is no significant difference in CPU load between them.