Hello!
I have an OpenVPN server set up and would like users to connect to VLAN1.
At the moment it works in such a way that I created a bridge-vpn to which I added vlan1.
My question is, can I get the same effect by bypassing the bridge-vpn?
I have 2 more VLANS (MGMT, VLAN2) which are assigned to ether5 because port 5 is connected to cisco switch.