Hello all
I would appreciate your input to help me configure an RB4011 (new version, if that matters) to work as efficiently as possible.
See drawing for what I had in mind.

W1 is a static public IP
W2 is a dynamic public IP
W3 is a static public IP
I understand the RB4011 has two fairly powerful switch chips, one dedicated for p1-5, the second on for p6-10.
p10 on the RB4011 will be a dedicated management port.
I was thinking of making p2 a trunk port as illustrated and route all this ports’ traffic out p1 (W1)
Then use p5 for a separate VLAN, and route its traffic out p4 (W2)
Lastly, I would put the PBX on p7 and route the traffic out on p6 (W3) (side note, I don’t have IP phones, only a handful of digital sets, so I only need one NIC on the routing/switching hardware)
Looking at my drawing, I have questions, and it’s highly likely I’m overthinking this.
1/ If I make p2 a trunk port without setting up a bridge, am I still using the switch chip?
2/ Same question if I treat p5 the same way
3/ Does it even make sense to split VLAN 40 off from the other trunk (bridge?) on p2?
4/ With respect to routing the traffic from VLAN40 to a different WAN than the other VLANs, I “thought” it would be simpler to keep VLAN40 on its own trunk port. Correct, or incorrect?
5/ Related to p2 and p5 setup, would you expect a (noticeable) performance difference for VLAN40 by putting all VLANs on one bridge, vs. keeping VLAN40 separate?
I hope my questions make sense. And I hope someone can chime in and help me understand/guide me to the most practical solution.
Last note, in case you were wondering - the VLAN trunk ports will come off a managed switch.
If I keep VLAN40 separate from the other VLANs, I will give it its own trunk port on the switch. (or even give it its own small managed switch)
The PBX will not go through the switch as there is no point in that.