Hello,
I have a scenario that I saw the other day and I am looking to understand why it works.
Using a brand new Mikrotik router (unknown software ver.) this is what I know:
WAN port connected to internet using an ISP supplied public address ( call it address 1)
Port two connected to an IP interface card installed in a new phone PBX.
Port 1 and 2 bridged
All other ports used as switchports, set to provide address via DHCP.
Here is what is confusing me:
The IP address of the PBX card is the same as the public address from the ISP ( address 1) therefore Port1 (WAN) and port2 and the IP card in the PBX are using the same public address. How is this possible? The purpose is to route IPvoice traffic accross the internet to the IP card.
Also, when I looked at the port status of port 2 it said disabled. Is this normal for a port that has been bridged?