Folks, here’s another Q on my journey to understand the VLAN implementation: Suppose there are two bridges, and we want them to share the same VLAN (tagged 10 here). bridge1 could be an ISP delivering a VoIP over VLAN 10, bridge2 an internal network with VoIP phones. Would this be a preferred way to do the trick?
Why not use all vlans for subnets, and that way one bridge is much easier to deal with.
Also use firewall rules properly and fewer rules are actually needed.
I am trying to simplify …
Yes, this would be an option; but it meant I had to re-configure the router completely. I just want to “pass” my ISP’s VoIP-VLAN to internal VoIP clients, and I’d prefer to minimize changes to the (complex) router configuration.
Hm… there is really no way? I guess I could do this with physical cables: Put both VLANs on an ethernet-port and connect the ports with a cable. Not sure if you know what I mean, roughly like this: Create an VLAN-Interface for VLAN 10 at each of the two bridges; then create two new bridges with an ethernet-port and a VLAN-Interface on each. A cable would then connect both ports and also the VLANs on them.
This sounds really weird, and I would think there should be another way to do this…
That’s why I said directly share. There are numerous bodges - bringing out the VLAN on physical ports and connecting them per your post; abusing a VLAN interface by attaching it to one bridge and including it as a member port of the other (see https://wiki.mikrotik.com/wiki/Manual:Layer2_misconfiguration particularly points 7 & 8 for the potential issues); create a EoIP tunnel within the Mikrotik so one end can be attached to one bridge, and the other end to the second bridge. All very hacky.