Hi all,
I've got a Router which has a "native" VLAN and a tagged VLAN (id=2) on ether1. The tagged vlan is bridged with ether3 so it's untagged on ether3. Ether2 should work the same way as ether1 so I set ether1 as "master-port". It works, but my question is, is this the way it's meant to work? My feeling is that the proper way to do this, is to configure the VLANs on ether2 too and bridge them like ether1. But the performance would be lower that way for the "native VLAN". What do you think?
Config:
/interface ethernet
set [ find default-name=ether1 ] name=ether1
set [ find default-name=ether2 ] name=ether2 master-port=ether1
set [ find default-name=ether2 ] name=ether3
/interface vlan
add interface=ether1 name=ether1_vlan2 vlan-id=2
/interface bridge port
add bridge=bridge-local interface=ether1_vlan2
add bridge=bridge-local interface=ether3
- Mat