Excuse me for the question, but I m a little confused.
I have PPPoE server with Public IP Pools and ( if no more public IPs ) privates ones.
I defined the local address of the PPP Profile with the first PRIVATE IP ( .1 ) of the first Private Pool ( ranging from .2 to 254).
If the client gets a Public IP, the trace from his computer to the world shows the 'local-address' as the first hop. If Private, same situation. Even can reach the MK box.
Is that correct? Somewhere I read that NO IP should be in the local-address.....but in this case, client receives no IP from any pool, nor can surf the net. Its disconnected!
Also the /IP address has the pools in it, but "with" or "without" those IPs in the IP address, no changes in the behavior of the client; can browse, email, everything without problems! Why should I populate this? Find no sense!