It sounds like a routing issue then, in openvpn you can specify the subnets behind the client using CCD, I wonder if you can do that with the MT version, or what has to be done to tell the MT that the route for those packets is in the openvpn? If you look at the route table can you see the routes pointing to the tunnel
I've setted up the subnets behind the clients in the ovpn server, I can see the routes in the MT, pointing to the tunnel and to the other LAN
I am guessing you can already ping from Lan2 to any pc in Lan 1 as thats your basic connection model. So the issue is from the clients at the server end back. The clients at the server end all have ips in the local network? Can the clients at the server end ping the MT address?
No, the clients at the server end can't ping the MT address (they can ping the public address, but not the LAN2 address)
But if it works on other machines it should work here, are the other scenarios different at all? I wonder if Lan2 is the primary destination then whether you might be better running it as server and have the openvpn as a client at the other end?
The only difference is that this connection has an ADSL modem that initiates the connection (router mode) the other scenarios has the ADSL modem in bridge modem and is the mikrotik who initiates the connection and get the public IP