Hi, I have two ISP of which I only use one. I share my internet connection with a few people. My goal is to hide my ISP (A) and show them my ISP (B) to anyone who tries to view whatismyip.com. The reason is because I'm in a restricted country. It’s possible to do it in Mikrotik I hope find the help in the community

I don't think you actually need to "hide" anything, more simply you have to find a way to distinguish "your" traffic/connection from that of the other people and route the one through ISP A and the other through ISP B.
How exactly to identify/distinguish the two depends on the specific way your network Is setup and how you (and the other people) access It.
Generally speaking It would be easier to set all traffic to go through ISP B and carve an exception only for your connection, identifying It by IP or MAC or by some other "unique" characteristics.

Do I read your goal properly that you want all the other users to also use the uplink with the address A for any "normal" traffic, but let whatismyip.com show address B to them? If so, it cannot be done reliably because there are tens, if not hundreds, of other services like whatismyip.com. And many technically oriented web pages even show you the public address you connect from along with the weather forecast and the nameday. Many of the web pages use HTTPS so replacing address A by address B in the responses is also out of question.

concur, as stated, your best bet is to have all the others use WAN2 and your family only use wan1.

Hello, thank you for your quick response. I appreciate the help provided. My ISP-A has a 150MB bandwidth, and I also have ISP-B with a 4MB bandwidth. I want all client traffic to go through ISP-A, but I want clients to be shown the public IP of ISP-B.

Hello, thank you for your quick response. I appreciate the help provided. My ISP-A has a 150MB bandwidth, and I also have ISP-B with a 4MB bandwidth. I want all client traffic to go through ISP-A, but I want clients to be shown the public IP of ISP-B.

Unless you own those IP addresses (guessing not likely), this is not possible without the explicit cooperation of both ISPs A and B. Also, assuming this is IPv4 we are talking about, this wouldn't be possible anyway if you are just talking about single IP addresses.

First, it is common practice for ISPs to filter traffic that is sourced from IP addresses that they don't know anything about (are not part of their AS). In theory, it might be possible to get ISP-A to agree to allow you to source traffic from the IP address you got from ISP-B. But they would also likely need to get approval from the ISPs that they peer with to let them source traffic from an IP block that they do not own, and this would also usually require that ISP-B agree to allow them to transmit/source traffic from IP blocks of theirs. It is very unlikely for ISP-B to agree to this.

Even if that happened, though, the result would be that your outgoing traffic would go out ISP-A with ISP-B's IP address listed as the source, but then the incoming response to that request would still come back to you through *ISP-B*, not ISP-A, because as far as the rest of the internet is concerned, those IP addresses belong to ISP-B, so everyone else on the internet will send their response back to ISP-B's network. So the only thing you gained is faster upload, not faster download...you would still be "stuck" with 4Mbit/s down on ISP-B to get back the responses to your requests.

The only way around THAT is if ISP-B agrees to allow ISP-A to tell the rest of the internet that traffic for that IP address can come back through their network. Doing that typically means ISP-A would announce the IP block that the address is part of using BGP to their peers and upstreams.

This is guaranteed to never happen, because you can't just announce single IP addresses to the rest of the internet...the other ISPs will filter out those announcements. It is common practice to only accept /24 prefixes, or blocks larger than that. So ISP-A would have to take over 256 addresses from ISP-B, not just a single address. ISP-B would never agree to this.

The only world in which this could potentially work is if ISP-B and ISP-A were peers with each other, and if ISP-B was okay with some of the traffic for the subnet arriving to them through ISP-A.

So as you may have figured out by now, there is nothing simple about this. About the only way I could *practically* see your goal ever working is if ISP-B ran a VPN server, and they allowed you to connect to it through ISP-A. Then ISP-B could send you traffic through the fast connection you have with ISP-A, instead of over the 4Mbit connection you have from them directly.